Exercise 3.3.2
Let $f: X \mapsto Y$ and $g: Y \mapsto Z$ be functions. Show that if $f$ and $g$ are both injective, then so is $g \circ f$; similarly, show that if $f$ and $g$ are both surjective, then so is $g \circ f$.
Injective $g \circ f$
By Definition 3.3.17, a function $f$ is injective, one-to-one, if
$$f(x)=f(x') \implies x=x'$$
Let's consider $g \circ f$ being injective,
$$g(f(x)) = g(f(x'))$$
Since $g$ is injective, $g(y)=g(y') \implies y=y'$, which here means
$$f(x) = f(x')$$
Now, since $f$ is injective, $f(x) = f(x') \implies x=x'$.
Thus, we have shown
$$g(f(x)) = g(f(x')) \implies x=x'$$
which means $g \circ f$ is injective. $\square$
Surjective $g \circ f$
By Definition 3.3.20, a function $f: X \mapsto Y$ is surjective, onto, if
$$(\forall y\in Y)(\exists x \in X)(f(x)=y)$$
In other words, every element of the codomain is mapped to by an element in the domain.
Let's consider $g \circ f$ being surjective. We need to show that every element $z \in Z$ has an element in $x \in X$ such that $g(f(x))=z$.
- Since $g$ is surjective, we know that every element $z \in Z$ has an element $y \in Y$ such that $g(y) = z$.
- Since $f$ is surjective, we know that every element $y \in Y$ has an element $x \in X$ such that $f(x)=y$.
We can use the second statement to rewrite the first as: every element $z \in Z$ has an element $x \in X$ such that $g(f(x)) = z$.
That is, $g \circ f$ is surjective. $\square$
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